Pick the Right ICD-9, ICD-10 Code for Postmenopausal Abnormalities
Posted on 26. Jan, 2010 by Editor in Coder's Cranium
Do N95.0 and N95.2 look foreign? Get your ob-gyn ICD-10 equivalents now.
Spare yourself denial hot flashes by taking this three-part postmenopausal abnormality scenario challenge.
Fill In These Blanks Using Your ICD-9 Book
Question 1: Your ob-gyn sees a post menopausal patient with an inflamed vagina because the tissues are thinning and shrinking. The ob-gyn notes decreased vaginal wall lubrication. This patient is experiencing vaginal soreness and itching, painful intercourse, and bleeding after intercourse. The ob-gyn diagnoses the patient with _________, and you should report this with _________.
Question 2: Your ob-gyn sees a post menopausal patient with unusual or abnormal vaginal bleeding. You should report _________.
Question 3: Because _________ occurs more frequently in postmenopausal women, your ob-gyn assesses and treats this bone disease. You should report it with _________.
How Did You Do? Click ‘read more’ to find out …
Answer 1: The ob-gyn diagnoses the patient with atrophic vaginitis, and you should report this with 627.3 (Menopausal and postmenopausal disorders; postmenopausal atrophic vaginitis). Generally, the lack of estrogen during and following menopause causes this condition. Additional causes for atrophic vaginitis include decreased estrogen due to decreased ovarian function after radiation or chemotherapy, oophorectomy, postpartum changes and immune disorders.
The ob-gyn will diagnose this condition via a pelvic exam, which will reveal thin, pale vaginal walls, but he may order lab tests to confirm menopause and rule out other conditions that might mimic it. According to Melanie Witt, RN, CPC, COBGC, MA, an ob-gyn coding expert based in Guadalupita, N.M., for potentially menopausal women who may have premature ovarian failure or who are being evaluated for risk of other health problems, the ob-gyn may order one or more of the following tests:
- follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): to learn whether she is approaching or has gone through
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Nidhi Maheshwari
27. Jan, 2010
…. I think the Answer to Question 3 was cut out…Here is the answer to that question:
Because OSTEOPOROSIS occurs more frequently in postmenopausal women, your ob-gyn assesses and treats this bone disease. You should report it with 733.01